Antibiotic treatment failure of uncomplicated urinary tract infections in primary care.

BACKGROUND: Higher resistance rates of > 20% have been noted in Enterobacteriaceae urinary isolates towards ciprofloxacin and co-trimoxazole (C + C) in Singapore, compared with amoxicillin-clavulanate and nitrofurantoin (AC + N). This study examined if treatment failure varied between different antibiotics, given different resistant rates, for uncomplicated urinary tract infections (UTIs) managed in primary care. We also aimed to identify gaps for improvement in diagnosis, investigations, and management. METHODS: A retrospective cohort study was conducted from 2019 to 2021 on female patients aged 18-50 with uncomplicated UTIs at 6 primary care clinics in Singapore. ORENUC classification was used to exclude complicated UTIs. Patients with uncomplicated UTIs empirically treated with amoxicillin-clavulanate, nitrofurantoin, ciprofloxacin or co-trimoxazole were followed-up for 28 days. Treatment failure was defined as re-attendance for symptoms and antibiotic re-prescription, or hospitalisation for UTI complications. After 2:1 propensity score matching in each group, modified Poisson regression and Cox proportional hazard regression accounting for matched data were used to determine risk and time to treatment failure. RESULTS: 3194 of 4253 (75.1%) UTIs seen were uncomplicated, of which only 26% were diagnosed clinically. Urine cultures were conducted for 1094 (34.3%) uncomplicated UTIs, of which only 410 (37.5%) had bacterial growth. The most common organism found to cause uncomplicated UTIs was Escherichia coli (64.6%), with 92.6% and 99.4% of isolates sensitive to amoxicillin-clavulanate and nitrofurantoin respectively. Treatment failure occurred in 146 patients (4.57%). Among 1894 patients treated with AC + N matched to 947 patients treated with C + C, patients treated with C + C were 50% more likely to fail treatment (RR 1.49, 95% CI 1.10-2.01), with significantly higher risk of experiencing shorter time to failure (HR 1.61, 95% CI 1.12-2.33), compared to patients treated with AC + N. CONCLUSION: Treatment failure rate was lower for antibiotics with lower reported resistance rates (AC + N). We recommend treating uncomplicated UTIs in Singapore with amoxicillin-clavulanate or nitrofurantoin, based on current local antibiograms. Diagnosis, investigations and management of UTIs remained sub-optimal. Future studies should be based on updating antibiograms, highlighting its importance in guideline development.

Variability in Grading Diabetic Retinopathy Using Retinal Photography and Its Comparison with an Automated Deep Learning Diabetic Retinopathy Screening Software.

BACKGROUND: Diabetic retinopathy (DR) screening using colour retinal photographs is cost-effective and time-efficient. In real-world clinical settings, DR severity is frequently graded by individuals of different expertise levels. We aim to determine the agreement in DR severity grading between human graders of varying expertise and an automated deep learning DR screening software (ADLS). METHODS: Using the International Clinical DR Disease Severity Scale, two hundred macula-centred fundus photographs were graded by retinal specialists, ophthalmology residents, family medicine physicians, medical students, and the ADLS. Based on referral urgency, referral grading was divided into no referral, non-urgent referral, and urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Inter-observer and intra-group variations were analysed using Gwet's agreement coefficient, and the performance of ADLS was evaluated using sensitivity and specificity. RESULTS: The agreement coefficient for inter-observer and intra-group variability ranged from fair to very good, and moderate to good, respectively. The ADLS showed a high area under curve of 0.879, 0.714, and 0.836 for non-referable DR, non-urgent referable DR, and urgent referable DR, respectively, with varying sensitivity and specificity values. CONCLUSION: Inter-observer and intra-group agreements among human graders vary widely, but ADLS is a reliable and reasonably sensitive tool for mass screening to detect referable DR and urgent referable DR.

Decision-making patterns among expert and novice orthodontists and oral maxillofacial surgeons in the management of adults with Class III malocclusions and moderate degree of skeletal discrepancies.

OBJECTIVE: To explore the decision-making patterns among expert and novice orthodontists and oral maxillofacial surgeons in the management of adults with Class III malocclusions and moderate skeletal discrepancies. DESIGN: Self-administered questionnaire survey. SETTING: Faculty of Dentistry, National University of Singapore and the University Dental Cluster, National University Hospital, Singapore. PARTICIPANTS: A total of 55 clinicians, comprising 13 expert orthodontists, 20 novice orthodontists, 10 expert oral maxillofacial surgeons and 12 novice oral maxillofacial surgeons. METHODS: Clinicians assessed six adults with a Class III malocclusion and moderate skeletal discrepancy. They were asked to decide who could be managed exclusively by orthodontic camouflage, who would require combined orthodontic-orthognathic surgery as the only viable treatment, or who could be offered both treatment options. RESULTS: The study found variable decision-making patterns among the clinicians in each case. Only 18.2%-40.0% of clinicians agreed that the cases selected were of moderate skeletal discrepancies and could be offered both treatment options whereas the rest were either more inclined to recommend orthodontic camouflage or orthognathic surgery. Intra-clinician agreement (n = 20) was only fair (Kappa value = 0.31). There was only slight inter-clinician agreement (n = 55) on their clinical decisions (Kappa value = 0.10). Clinical experience and dental specialty did not significantly influence clinicians' decisions. Oral and maxillofacial surgeons were 1.98 times more likely to indicate orthognathic surgery as the only viable treatment compared to the orthodontists (95% confidence interval = 1.15-3.42). CONCLUSION: Variability in the patterns of decision-making for adults with a Class III malocclusion and moderate skeletal discrepancy was observed among the clinicians with low repeatability and agreement.

Does an educational video for aneuploidy screening improve informed choice among pregnant women? A randomised controlled trial.

BACKGROUND: Poor knowledge and the lack of deliberation have been cited as reasons for women making uninformed choices about aneuploidy screening. Adequate pre-test counselling is of particular importance where non-invasive prenatal screening (NIPS) is being increasingly offered as a primary screening test. DESIGN: Women attending the antenatal clinic with a singleton pregnancy below 14 weeks were randomised to receive routine counselling or the intervention-a 16-min educational video on aneuploidy screening before their consult. The primary outcome, rate of informed choice, was assessed using an adapted multidimensional measure of informed choice questionnaire, where informed choice was defined as good knowledge and value-consistent behaviour. Secondary outcomes included informed choice with deliberation, decisional conflict and anxiety. RESULTS: Two hundred and eighty-six women were recruited. 69.8% of women in the intervention group made an informed choice compared with 53.6% in the control group (Risk Ratio [RR] 1.30, p = 0.014). A significantly higher number of women in the intervention group had good knowledge compared to controls (81% vs. 60.9%; RR 1.33, p = 0.001). Decisional conflict did not differ between groups, but women in the intervention group had higher anxiety scores (p < 0.001). CONCLUSION: The study intervention was effective in helping women make informed choice. Qualitative studies to determine the reason for increased anxiety are needed. TRIAL REGISTRATION: Trial registry: ClinicalTrials.gov; Identifier: NCT05492981.

One-Year Outcomes of Micropulse Cyclophototherapy for Primary Open-angle Glaucoma.

PRECIS: In primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG), micropulse trans-scleral cyclophototherapy (MPTCP) is effective in lowering intraocular pressure (IOP), but its effects are not permanent. Hence, it can serve as a temporizing measure before definitive glaucoma surgery. PURPOSE: There is limited data on MPTCP in POAG. This is the first study that looks at MPTCP treatment specifically in POAG patients. PATIENTS AND METHODS: This is an interventional, single-institution exploratory case series with 55 eyes of 48 patients with POAG. Data was collected from clinical records, including patient demographics, clinical information, number of glaucoma medications, MPTCP laser settings, complications, and clinical outcomes. RESULTS: Patients had a mean age of 67.3±14.1 years with a preponderance of males. IOP was 24.8±1.0 mm Hg before MPTCP and decreased to 19.7±1.1, 21.9±1.1, and 21.8±1.1 mm Hg at postoperative month 3, 6, and 12 respectively. IOP remained below pretreatment levels throughout the postoperative period (P<0.05). Visual acuity and mean deviation remained stable before and after MPTCP. No eyes had complications. Number of glaucoma medications remained the same after MPTCP. Four eyes required additional oral acetazolamide at postoperative month 1 for IOP control. Seventeen eyes subsequently required further surgical intervention after 9.84 months. Maximal IOP decrease was greater when there were higher power settings, higher preoperative IOP, and better preoperative visual acuity. CONCLUSIONS AND RELEVANCE: The IOP lowering effect of MPTCP treatment in patients with POAG was found to be modest and transient with a similar medication burden, and definitive glaucoma surgery was needed in a number of patients.

Comparing conventional and high sensitivity troponin T measurements in identifying adverse cardiac events in patients admitted to an Asian emergency department chest pain observation unit.

BACKGROUND: High sensitive cardiac troponin assays can be used for prediction of major adverse cardiac events (MACE) in patients with chest pain. METHODS: We included patients with symptoms suggestive of acute coronary syndrome in the emergency department observation unit. We compared the accuracy of conventional troponin T (cTnT) with high sensitive troponin T (hsTnT) at various ranges, as well as the utility of hsTnT and cTnT in prediction of 30-day and 1-year MACE. RESULTS: 1023 patients were included (68.1% male, median age 56 years). There were 2712 hsTnT and cTnT values compared. hsTnT had a higher AUC than cTnT for 30-day and 1-year MACE. The optimal cut-off of 0-hour hsTnT for 30-day (PPV 34%, NPV 96.6%) and 1-year MACE (PPV 40.2%, NPV 94.2%) was 16 ng/L.For 844 patients who had values for both 0 and 2 h hsTnT, we proposed a rule-out cut-off of 0 and 2 h hsTnT < 16 ng/L (NPV 97.0%, 95%CI 95.5-98.1%) and a rule-in cut-off of 0 and 2 h hsTnT ≥ 26 ng/L (PPV 58.8%, 95%CI 40.7%-75.4%) for 30-day MACE. Negative 0-2 h delta-hsTnT had poor predictive discriminant capabilities on 30-day (PPV 8.2%) and 1-year MACE (PPV 12.3%). CONCLUSION: The cut off values of hsTnT used in the 0 and 2-hour algorithm to rule-out (16 ng/L) and rule-in MACE (26 ng/L) are in the range that previous cTnT assays are unable to measure accurately. Risk scores can be used to further improve NPV of the rule-out group. A fall in hsTnT level acutely is not predictive of MACE.

Temporomandibular disorders in prospective orthodontic patients.

OBJECTIVES: To determine the prevalence and severity of temporomandibular disorders (TMDs) in prospective orthodontic patients. The association between TMDs and malocclusion severity as well as the impact of TMDs on oral health-related quality of life (OHRQoL) were also examined. MATERIALS AND METHODS: A total of 350 consecutive patients seeking orthodontic treatment were invited to participate in the study. The presence of TMDs was established with the Fonseca Anamnestic Index (FAI), while malocclusion severity and OHRQoL were evaluated using the Peer Assessment Rating (PAR) index and Oral Health Impact Profile-14 (OHIP-14), respectively. Data were analyzed using chi-square, Kruskal-Wallis, and Mann-Whitney U tests and Spearman's correlation (P < .05). RESULTS: Of the 350 patients, 164 consented to participation. Data from 26 participants were excluded because of incomplete entries, and that from 138 subjects (mean age 21.02 ± 5.45 years) were examined. TMD-related symptoms were present in two-thirds of the subjects, with 20.3% experiencing moderate/severe TMDs. While no significant difference in PAR scores were observed between the group with no TMDs and those with TMDs, subjects with TMDs had significantly higher OHIP-14 summary/domain scores than those without TMDs. Although a moderately strong correlation was observed between the FAI and summary OHIP-14 scores (rs = 0.57), no association was observed between FAI and PAR index scores. CONCLUSIONS: The prevalence of TMD-related symptoms in prospective orthodontic patients was high, emphasizing the importance of screening the masticatory system before initiating orthodontic therapy. Although the presence of TMDs was not associated with malocclusion severity, it had a significant negative impact on OHRQoL.

Oximetry-detected pulsus paradoxus predicts for severity in paediatric asthma.

OBJECTIVE: To evaluate if qualitative visual detection of pulsus paradoxus (PP) on the pulse oximeter plethysmograph can predict outcomes for children with moderate to severe respiratory distress in a paediatric emergency department (ED). DESIGN: Prospective cohort study. SETTING: Paediatric ED of a tertiary paediatrics hospital in Singapore. PATIENTS: Children managed for moderate to severe wheezing in the resuscitation bay of the ED. INTERVENTIONS: Patients were assessed for the presence of PP based on visual detection of oximeter plethysmograph before and after initial inhaled bronchodilator therapy. MAIN OUTCOME MEASURES: These include the need for adjunct medications such as aminophylline or magnesium sulfate, the need for supplementary ventilation and the need for admission to the high dependency unit (HDU) or intensive care unit (ICU). RESULTS: There were 285 patients included in the study, of whom 78 (27.4%) had PP at ED presentation. There were 40 (14.0%) who had PP after initial management. Children who had PP after initial management had significantly relative risks (RR) of requiring adjunct medications (RR 12.5, 95% CI 4.0 to 38.6), need for supplementary ventilation (RR 5.6, 95% CI 1.2 to 26.5) and admission to the HDU/ICU (RR 5.6, 95% CI 3.0 to 10.4). CONCLUSION: Qualitative detection of PP on pulse oximetry can be used as a potential point-of-care tool to help in the assessment of response to initial treatment in paediatric patients with acute moderate to severe asthma exacerbations. Future studies are needed to assess and validate its role in guiding ED management of acute paediatric asthma.

A Cross-sectional Study of Knowledge, Attitude and Barriers to Colorectal Cancer Screening among Cancer Survivors.

Introduction: Understanding behaviour of cancer survivors is imperative as they are at risk of recurrence or second cancers. Colorectal cancer (CRC) is one of the most common cancers globally. We aim to determine the uptake rate, barriers and predictors of CRC screening among cancer survivors. Methods: Within a public hospital in Singapore, 150 non-CRC survivors were enrolled. Questionnaire on knowledge, screening behaviour, motivators and barriers towards CRC screening was administered. Results: Majority were survivors of breast (69.3%), prostate (7.3%), endometrial (4%) and ovarian (4%) cancers. More than half had high knowledge scores for CRC symptoms, screening tests and risk factors. About a third had received physician's recommendation on CRC screening. Approximately half had undergone screening. The most common barriers to CRC screening were lack of symptoms and physician's recommendation. Cancer survivors with higher education, higher household income, family history and those who perceived "great need" or "some need" were more likely to have undergone screening (56.4% vs 30.6%, p=0.003; 62.2% vs 41.9%, p=0.022; 70.6% vs 45.1%, p=0.048; 70.8% vs 27.4%, p<0.001). Physician's recommendation (76.4% vs 31.6%, p<0.001) and high CRC symptom knowledge (55.8% vs 34.5%, p=0.012) were associated with increased likelihood of screening.On multivariate analysis, physician's recommendation, higher household income and survivors' perceived need to undergo screening remained strong predictors for CRC screening (p<0.001; p=0.010; p<0.001). Conclusion: The uptake rate of CRC screening among non-CRC survivors was modest. Physicians need to be more active in discussing CRC screening with cancer survivors as part of the survivorship care plan.

Secondary Dentition Characteristics in Children With Nonsyndromic Unilateral Cleft Lip and Palate: A Retrospective Study.

OBJECTIVE: Children with cleft lip and palate are reported to be commonly associated with higher prevalence of dental anomalies such as hypodontia, supernumeraries, and abnormalities in tooth size, shape, and position. This study investigated the prevalence of dental anomalies in a longitudinal cohort of children with unilateral cleft lip and palate (UCLP). DESIGN: The study was a retrospective analysis of radiographs, study models, and treatment notes. PATIENTS: Sixty patients with repaired UCLP aged 13 years old with complete dental records dating from 5 years of age were included. METHODS: Study casts, dental panoramic, anterior maxillary occlusal, and periapical radiographs of the patients were examined for cleft-sidedness, congenitally missing permanent teeth, supernumerary teeth, microdontic, and macrodontic teeth in the anterior maxillary region, presence of malformed permanent cleft-sided lateral incisor and its morphology (peg-shaped, conical shaped, canine-formed), positions of the permanent lateral incisors relative to the cleft side and presence of rotated cleft-sided central incisors. RESULTS: Of the 60 patients studied, 63.3% had hypodontia, 21.7% had supernumerary teeth, 69.6% had microdontia, and 12.5% had macrodontia. All of the cleft-sided permanent lateral incisors had associated anomalies, with a large proportion (43.1%) missing; and when present in 31 subjects, the majority (90.3%) was positioned distal to the cleft. Most of the cleft-sided permanent central incisors were rotated if present, and prevalent at 86.7%. CONCLUSION: A high prevalence of dental anomalies was observed in this sample of children with UCLP.

Pegylated Filgrastim Versus Filgrastim for Stem Cell Mobilization in Multiple Myeloma After Novel Agent Induction.

BACKGROUND: The current standard of care for transplant-eligible myeloma patients is novel agent-based induction, followed by high-dose chemotherapy and autologous stem cell rescue. Chemo-mobilization of peripheral blood CD34+ stem cells (PBSCs) with pegylated filgrastim (pegfilgrastim), a sustained-duration formulation of filgrastim, has been used as an alternative to filgrastim in several studies involving heterogeneous cohorts of lymphoma and multiple myeloma (MM) patients and shown to be equivalent in PBSC yield and cost-effectiveness. The present study focused on the efficacy of pegfilgrastim in PBSC mobilization compared with filgrastim exclusively after novel agent-based induction in a homogeneous group of MM patients. PATIENTS AND METHODS: We analyzed the data from 89 patients with MM treated at 2 transplant centers in Singapore who had received novel agent-based induction chemotherapy, PBSC mobilization with vinorelbine/cyclophosphamide, high-dose melphalan conditioning, and autologous stem cell rescue. Of the 89 patients, 61 were included in the pegfilgrastim group and 28 in the filgrastim group, with a similar median age and disease characteristics. PBSC harvesting was performed at a similar median time of 9.51 ± 0.84 days for both, and the peak peripheral blood CD34+ stem cell count was 19.90 × 106/kg for pegfilgrastim and 32.50 × 106/kg for filgrastim (95% confidence interval, -4.36 to 0.70 × 106/kg). RESULTS: No significant difference was found in the median PBSC collection between the 2 groups (pegfilgrastim, 7.90 × 106/kg vs. filgrastim, 10.10 × 106/kg; P = .16). CONCLUSION: The present study has demonstrated that a single dose of pegfilgrastim is comparable to filgrastim in terms of the timing and efficacy of PBSC harvest and could potentially spare the patient 6 days of filgrastim injections. In addition, ours is the first study to compare these growth factors using vinorelbine/cyclophosphamide as mobilization chemotherapy.

Corrigendum to "A Study of Success Rate of Miniscrew Implants as Temporary Anchorage Devices in Singapore".

[This corrects the article DOI: 10.1155/2015/294670.].

Development and Validation of a Simplified Falls Assessment Tool in an Acute Care Setting.

An easy-to-use assessment tool, which contains reversible risk factors, might influence the success of a falls prevention program. A 2-phase study was undertaken to develop and validate a simplified falls assessment tool. Risk factors of confusion, dizziness, altered elimination, and difficulty with mobility were found to be significantly associated with fall status. The simplified falls assessment tool that contains these 4 risk factors yielded a comparable predictive value to Hendrich II Falls Risk Model.

Prevalence of chronic kidney disease-mineral and bone disorder in incident peritoneal dialysis patients and its association with short-term outcomes.

INTRODUCTION: A complex relationship exists between chronic kidney disease-mineral and bone disorder (CKD-MBD) and adverse outcomes among dialysis patients. This study aimed to report the prevalence of CKD-MBD and examine the impact of achieving target CKD-MBD parameters on morbidity and mortality one year after peritoneal dialysis (PD) initiation. METHODS: In this retrospective cohort study, patients electively initiated on PD were followed up for one year. Laboratory parameters were collected and the prevalence of CKD-MBD 4-6 months after PD initiation was determined based on the Kidney Disease Outcomes Quality Initiative (KDOQI) and Kidney Disease: Improving Global Outcomes (KDIGO) guidelines. Linear regression and Cox proportional hazards model were used to evaluate the effects of achieving CKD-MBD targets 4-6 months after PD initiation on hospitalisation, the incidence of peritonitis or exit-site infections (ESIs), and mortality at one year. RESULTS: The prevalence of CKD-MBD among the 86 patients in this study was 86.0% (KDOQI) and 54.7% (KDIGO). There was no significant difference in hospitalisation duration between patients who achieved targets and those who did not. Patients who failed to meet all the KDIGO CKD-MBD or calcium serum targets had a higher incidence of peritonitis or ESI. A trend toward shorter time to death was observed among patients who failed to meet the KDIGO phosphorus serum targets. CONCLUSION: There was moderate (KDIGO) to high prevalence (KDOQI) of CKD-MBD among the patients. Achievement of all the KDIGO CKD-MBD or calcium serum targets was associated with reduced peritonitis or ESI, while achievement of the KDIGO phosphorus serum targets was associated with improved survival.

Evaluation of the applicability of the Immuno-solid-phase allergen chip (ISAC) assay in atopic patients in Singapore.

BACKGROUND/OBJECTIVE: Molecular-based allergy diagnostics are gaining popularity in clinical practice. Our aim was to evaluate their role in the tropics, given the inherent genetic and environmental differences. METHODS: We recruited subjects with history of atopy and collected data on demographics and atopic symptoms using validated questionnaires. Subjects underwent a series of skin prick tests (SPT). Serum total and specific IgE levels were measured using ImmunoCAP FEIA and ImmunoCAP ISAC®, respectively. We describe their pattern of sensitization and agreement between test methods. RESULTS: A total of 135 subjects were recruited; mean ± SD age of 31.18 ± 12.72 years, 52.7% female. Allergic rhinitis (AR) was the most prevalent clinical manifestation of atopy (70.7%), followed by atopic dermatitis (AD) (50.5%) and asthma (26.2%). Polysensitization was seen in 51.1% of subjects by both SPT and ISAC. House dust mites (HDM) were the dominant allergen, with sensitization in 67.8% and 62% of subjects on SPT and ISAC, respectively. A group of subjects with monosensitization to B. tropicalis was identified. HDM sensitization was strongly associated with AR, while AD and asthma were not associated with sensitization to any allergen. Agreement between SPT and ISAC was mostly suboptimal. Greatest agreement was documented for the measurement of HDM sensitization with both methods (κ = 0.64). Sensitization to the bulk of the remaining allergens in the ISAC panel was infrequent. CONCLUSION: Multiplex methods should not be used as a screening tool, especially in a population with lower rates of polysensitization and a dominant sensitizing allergen. There may be a role in adjusting the antigen spectrum in the ISAC panel to regional differences.

Vitamin D status and its association with mineral and bone disorder in a multi-ethnic chronic kidney disease population.

BACKGROUND: Vitamin D deficiency is associated with secondary hyperparathyroidism and mineral and bone disorder (MBD) in chronic kidney disease (CKD). This study aimed to determine the prevalence of vitamin D insufficiency/deficiency, and the association between vitamin D status and MBD in a multi-ethnic CKD population in Southeast Asia. METHODS: Predialysis CKD patients were included in this cross-sectional study. Patient demographics, medical/medication histories, and laboratory parameters (serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D (25(OH)D), creatinine, phosphate (P), calcium, albumin, and intact-PTH (i-PTH)) were collected and compared among patients with various CKD stages. The association between 25(OH)D and these parameters was determined by multiple linear regression. RESULTS: A total of 196 patients with mean ± SD eGFR of 26.4 ± 11.2 mL/min/1.73 m2 was included. Vitamin D deficiency (25(OH)D concentration < 15 ng/mL) and insufficiency (25(OH)D concentration 16 - 30 ng/mL) was found in 29.1% and 57.7% of the patients, respectively. Mean ± SD serum 25(OH)D was 20.8 ± 9.3 ng/mL. Female patients had lower vitamin D concentrations than males (16.9 ng/mL vs. 23.9 ng/mL; p < 0.001). Vitamin D levels were also higher in Chinese (22.3 ng/mL) than Malay (17.3 ng/mL) and Indian (13.1 ng/mL) patients (p < 0.05). Nonadjusted analyses showed higher i-PTH concentration in vitamin D deficient patients (p < 0.05). CONCLUSION: Despite being a sun-rich country all year round, the majority (86.8%) of predialysis CKD patients in Singapore have suboptimal vitamin D status. Lower vitamin D concentrations were found in females and in those with darker skin tone. Vitamin D deficient patients also tended to have higher i-PTH levels.

Should we treat patients with impaired consciousness and periodic patterns on EEG?

PURPOSE: The significance of periodic EEG patterns in patients with impaired consciousness is controversial. We aimed to determine if treating these patterns influences clinical outcome. METHOD: We studied all patients who had periodic discharges on their EEG recordings from January 2007 to December 2009. Patients with clinical seizures within the preceding 24h, or with unequivocal electrographical seizure activity were excluded. Logistic regression was performed to analyze for factors associated with (a) mortality (b) functional status (c) resolution of EEG pattern. RESULTS: Of the 4246 patients who had EEG, 111 (2.6%) had periodic EEG patterns. 64 met inclusion criteria. In adjusted analysis, higher mortality was associated with acute symptomatic etiology (OR 17.74, 95% CI 1.61-196.07, p=0.019), and presence of clinical seizures (OR 4.73, 95% CI 1.10-20.34, p=0.037). For each unit decrement of GCS, the odds of inpatient mortality and a poorer functional state on discharge increased by 23% (95% CI 7-37%, p=0.009) and 33% (95% CI 9-51%, p=0.011) respectively. Administration of abortive therapy was an independent risk factor for poorer functional status on discharge (adjusted OR 41.39, 95% CI 2.88-594.42, p=0.006), while patients with history of pre-existing cerebral disease appeared more likely to return to baseline functional status on discharge (unadjusted OR 5.00, 95% CI 1.40-17.86, p=0.013). CONCLUSION: Treatment of periodic EEG patterns does not independently improve clinical outcome of patients with impaired conscious levels. Occurrence of seizures remote to the time of EEG and lower GCS scores independently predict poor prognoses.

Characteristics of aortic wall extracellular matrix in patients with acute myocardial infarction: tissue microarray detection of collagen I, collagen III and elastin levels.

OBJECTIVES: Extracellular matrix (ECM) remodelling of the vessel wall is hypothesized to be an important step in atherosclerosis. Changes of the ECM are associated with the gradual progression of an atherosclerotic lesion from a lipid streak to complicated unstable plaque, leading to a complete vessel occlusion and eventually myocardial infarction (MI). Understanding of this process is critical in the treatment and prevention of ischaemic heart disease (IHD). METHODS: We investigated the histopathological characteristics of aortic wall ECM in IHD patients. Collagen I, collagen III and elastin were assessed immunohistochemically in patients with acute MI and those with stable angina, using aortic punch tissues obtained from coronary artery bypass graft surgery. Fluorescence tissue images were analysed using the tissue microarray technique. RESULTS: The results showed that collagen III expression was found to be significantly lower in the acute MI group (P < 0.001). As a result of this change, the patients with MI also revealed a significant reduction in the collagen III/collagen I ratio. The elastin/collagen III ratio was significantly higher in the MI group (P < 0.001). CONCLUSIONS: Our study provided evidence of a decrease in collagen III content in patients with MI, which could possibly explain the mechanism of plaque vulnerability and weakening of the plaque cap. A reduction in collagen III content, particularly away from the atherosclerotic lesions, might be explained by the systemic vascular changes in patients with MI, and inflammation and immune responses could be potential causes of these systemic transformations. The biochemical mechanisms and factors regulating collagen III production might be potential markers to predict possible cardiovascular events.